Are you preparing for the NECO Agricultural Science exam and looking for a way to boost your confidence and knowledge? Look no further! In this blog post, we’ll share some sample repeated practical questions from previous exams to help you familiarize yourself with the format and content of the exam. From soil science to forestry, we’ve got you covered. We understand that you need predicted practical questions for the 2024 NECO Agricultural Science exam. these practical questions are based on previous exams and the specimen list:
Soil Science
1. Identify and describe the soil structure of specimen A (sandy soil).
2. Determine the pH level of specimen B (clay soil) using pH paper or a pH meter.
3. Analyze the nutrient content of specimen C (loamy soil) using a soil testing kit.
Crop Production
1. Identify and classify specimen D (maize) according to its leaf structure.
2. Determine the moisture content of specimen E (rice) using a moisture meter.
3. Analyze the stages of growth of specimen F (wheat).
Animal Production
1. Identify and classify specimen G (cattle) according to its breed.
2. Determine the body weight of specimen H (sheep) using a weighing scale.
3. Analyze the nutritional requirements of specimen I (goat).
Agricultural Implements
1. Identify and describe the use of specimen J (hoe).
2. Determine the efficiency of specimen K (cutlass) in cutting vegetation.
3. Analyze the importance of specimen L (plough) in tillage.
Fisheries
1. Identify and classify specimen M (tilapia) according to its species.
2. Determine the water quality requirements for specimen N (catfish).
3. Analyze the feeding habits of specimen O (goldfish).
Forestry
1. Identify and classify specimen P (teak wood) according to its timber characteristics.
2. Determine the growth rate of specimen Q (mahogany wood).
3. Analyze the importance of specimen R (pine wood) in forestry.
Please note that these questions are just predictions and may not be the exact questions that will appear in the exam. It’s essential to practice with a variety of questions and to review the specimen list to be well-prepared for the exam. Good luck!
Here are the answers and explanations for the predicted practical questions:
Soil Science
M
1. Answer: Sandy soil has a loose, crumbly structure with large pore spaces.
Explanation: Sandy soil is characterized by its large particle size and low water-holding capacity.
2. Answer: The pH level of clay soil is acidic (pH 6.0).
Explanation: Clay soil tends to be acidic due to the high concentration of hydrogen ions.
3. Answer: Loamy soil contains a balanced mix of nutrients (NPK).
Explanation: Loamy soil is known for its balanced nutrient content, making it suitable for plant growth.
_Crop Production_
1. Answer: Maize is a monocot with a leaf structure characterized by parallel veins.
Explanation: Maize is a type of cereal crop with distinctive parallel veins on its leaves.
2. Answer: The moisture content of rice is 12%.
Explanation: Rice typically has a low moisture content, making it susceptible to drying.
3. Answer: Wheat is in the flowering stage.
Explanation: Wheat goes through various stages of growth, including germination, growth, and flowering.
_Animal Production_
1. Answer: Cattle are classified as Bos indicus (zebu breed).
Explanation: Cattle are identified by their breed, in this case, the zebu breed characterized by its hump.
2. Answer: The body weight of sheep is 45 kg.
Explanation: Sheep are weighed to determine their body weight, essential for nutritional management.
3. Answer: Goats require a diet rich in fiber and energy.
Explanation: Goats have specific nutritional needs, including high fiber and energy content.
_Agricultural Implements_
1. Answer: A hoe is used for weeding and soil preparation.
Explanation: Hoes are essential tools for removing weeds and preparing soil for planting.
2. Answer: The cutlass is 80% efficient in cutting vegetation.
Explanation: Cutlasses are evaluated based on their efficiency in cutting vegetation.
3. Answer: The plough is essential for tillage, preparing soil for planting.
Explanation: Ploughs are vital for breaking up soil clods and preparing soil for planting.
_Fisheries_
1. Answer: Tilapia is a freshwater fish species (Oreochromis niloticus).
Explanation: Tilapia is a popular freshwater fish species farmed globally.
2. Answer: Catfish require water with a pH range of 6.5-8.5.
Explanation: Catfish are sensitive to water quality and require a specific pH range.
3. Answer: Goldfish are omnivores, feeding on both plant and animal matter.
Explanation: Goldfish have diverse feeding habits, consuming both plant and animal-based foods.
_Forestry_
1. Answer: Teak wood is a hardwood species (Tectona grandis).
Explanation: Teak wood is a highly valued hardwood species used for furniture and construction.
2. Answer: Mahogany wood grows at a rate of 3 meters per year.
Explanation: Mahogany wood is a fast-growing species, making it suitable for reforestation.
3. Answer: Pine wood is used for timber and paper production.
Explanation: Pine wood is a versatile species used for various forest products.
Please note that these answers and explanations are based on general knowledge and may not be the exact answers required by NECO. It’s essential to practice with a variety of questions and to review the specimen list to be well-prepared for the exam. Good luck!
Exam past questions
Most Frequently repeated JAMB past questions for Agricultural Science:
Are you preparing for the Agricultural Science part of UTME, these are some frequently repeated past Questions to keep you practicing and prepared.
JAMB always have a way of repeated some certain questions and it is always advisable to constantly practice past questions. Here are few of the questions .
1. What is the primary function of the stomata in plants?
a) Photosynthesis
b) Transpiration
c) Respiration
d) Reproduction
Answer: b) Transpiration
Explanation: Stomata are small pores on the surface of leaves that regulate the exchange of gases and water vapor between the plant and its environment. One of their main functions is to facilitate transpiration, the loss of water vapor from the plant.
2. Which of the following is a leguminous crop?
a) Maize
b) Rice
c) Cowpea
d) Millet
Answer: c) Cowpea
Explanation: Leguminous crops, like cowpea, have the ability to fix nitrogen in the soil through a symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria present in nodules on their roots.
3. Which of the following farming systems involves the growing of crops and rearing of animals on the same piece of land?
A) Monoculture
b) Mixed farming
c) Nomadic farming
d) Shifting cultivation
Answer: b) Mixed farming
Explanation: Mixed farming involves both crop cultivation and animal rearing on the same farm, allowing for a more diversified and sustainable agricultural system.
4. Which of the following is not a method of weed control in agriculture?
A) Herbicides
b) Crop rotation
c) Manual weeding
d) Insecticides
Answer: d) Insecticides
Explanation: Insecticides are used to control insect pests, not weeds. Methods such as herbicides, crop rotation, and manual weeding are commonly used for weed control.
5. What is the primary function of nitrogen in plants?
a) Formation of chlorophyll
b) Formation of proteins
c) Energy storage
d) Cell wall structure
Answer: b) Formation of proteins
Explanation: Nitrogen is a crucial component of amino acids, which are the building blocks of proteins. Proteins play essential roles in various cellular functions within plants.
6. These questions cover a range of topics commonly tested in JAMB Agricultural Science exams and provide explanations for each answer.
7. Which of the following is an example of a ruminant animal?
a) Pig
b) Horse
c) Sheep
d) Chicken
Answer: c) Sheep
Explanation: Ruminant animals have a four-chambered stomach that allows them to digest cellulose-rich plant material through a process of fermentation. Sheep are examples of ruminants.
8. Which of the following soil types has the smallest particles?
a) Sand
b) Silt
c) Clay
d) Loam
Answer: c) Clay
Explanation: Clay particles are the smallest among the soil types listed. They have a high surface area and hold water and nutrients well but can also compact easily.
9. What is the primary function of phosphorus in plants?
a) Photosynthesis
b) Energy transfer
c) Cell division
d) Water uptake
Answer: c) Cell division
Explanation: Phosphorus is essential for various cellular processes in plants, including cell division, DNA synthesis, and energy transfer through ATP (adenosine triphosphate).
10. Which of the following is a non-renewable natural resource?
a) Wind
b) Sunlight
c) Coal
d) Water
Answer: c) Coal
Explanation: Coal is a non-renewable resource because it is formed over millions of years from the remains of plants and animals. Once it is mined and burned, it cannot be replaced within a human time scale.
11. What is the primary function of the male reproductive organ in plants?
a) Production of pollen grains
b) Production of seeds
c) Production of fruits
d) Absorption of water
Answer: a) Production of pollen grains
Explanation: The male reproductive organ in plants, the stamen, produces pollen grains containing the male gametes (sperm cells), which are essential for fertilizing the female reproductive organs (ovules) and producing seeds.
12. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?
a) Nitrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Hydrogen
Answer: c) Carbon dioxide
Explanation: Carbon dioxide (CO2) is a greenhouse gas that contributes to global warming by trapping heat in the Earth’s atmosphere.
13. Which of the following is an example of a perennial crop?
a) Wheat
b) Rice
c) Banana
d) Maize
Answer: c) Banana
Explanation: Perennial crops are plants that live for more than two years and produce multiple harvests. Examples include trees (e.g., banana) and shrubs.
14. Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system in animals?
a) Transport of nutrients
b) Regulation of body temperature
c) Protection of internal organs
d) Production of hormones
Answer: c) Protection of internal organs
Explanation: The skeletal system provides structural support and protects internal organs from injury in animals.
15. What is the primary function of nitrogen-fixing bacteria in leguminous plants?
a) Absorption of water
b) Production of oxygen
c) Fixation of nitrogen
d) Synthesis of carbohydrates
Answer: c) Fixation of nitrogen
Explanation: Nitrogen-fixing bacteria form symbiotic relationships with leguminous plants and convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form that can be used by the plants for growth.
16. Which of the following is a method of soil conservation?
a) Overgrazing
b) Deforestation
c) Terracing
d) Monoculture
Answer: c) Terracing
Explanation: Terracing involves creating steps or ridges on sloping land to reduce soil erosion by slowing down the flow of water and allowing it to infiltrate the soil.
17. Which of the following is an example of a non-point source of water pollution?
a) Factory discharge
b) Sewage treatment plant
c) Pesticide runoff from fields
d) Industrial waste dumping
Answer: c) Pesticide runoff from fields
Explanation: Non-point source pollution refers to pollution that comes from diffuse sources, such as agricultural fields, where pesticides and fertilizers can be carried into water bodies by rainwater runoff.
18. What is the primary function of the ovary in plants?
a) Production of pollen grains
b) Production of seeds
c) Production of fruits
d) Absorption of water
Answer: c) Production of fruits
Explanation: The ovary in plants contains ovules, which, when fertilized, develop into seeds. The ovary also undergoes changes after fertilization to form the fruit, which protects and aids in the dispersal of seeds.
19. Which of the following is a micronutrient required by plants in small quantities?
A) Nitrogen
b) Phosphorus
c) Potassium
d) Iron
Answer: d) Iron
Explanation: Iron is a micronutrient essential for various biochemical processes in plants, such as photosynthesis and the synthesis of chlorophyll.
20. Which of the following is a method of poultry farming?
a) Silviculture
b) Apiculture
c) Aviculture
d) Sericulture
Answer: c) Aviculture
Explanation: Aviculture refers to the rearing of birds, particularly domestic birds like chickens, ducks, and turkeys, for meat and egg production.
21. What is the primary function of the sepal in plants?
a) Protection of the flower bud
b) Production of pollen grains
c) Attraction of pollinators
d) Photosynthesis
Answer: a) Protection of the flower bud
Explanation: The sepal is a leaf-like structure that protects the flower bud as it develops and often remains attached to the base of the flower after it blooms.
22. Which of the following is a method of controlling soil erosion?
a) Intensive farming
b) Crop rotation
c) Overgrazing
d) Deforestation
Answer: b) Crop rotation
Explanation: Crop rotation involves growing different crops in a sequence on the same piece of land to improve soil health, prevent nutrient depletion, and reduce erosion.
23. Which of the following is a component of the male reproductive system in mammals?
a) Ovary
b) Testis
c) Oviduct
d) Uterus
Answer: b) Testis
Explanation: The testis is the primary male reproductive organ responsible for producing sperm and male sex hormones, such as testosterone.
24. Which of the following is a method of plant propagation?
a) Grafting
b) Transplanting
c) Weeding
d) Fertilizing
Answer: a) Grafting
Explanation: Grafting involves joining the tissues of two different plants so that they grow together as one. It is commonly used in horticulture to propagate desirable traits from one plant onto another.
25. Which of the following is a type of plant hormone?
a) Glucose
b) Starch
c) Auxin
d) Protein
Answer: c) Auxin
Explanation: Auxins are plant hormones that regulate various aspects of plant growth and development, including cell elongation, root initiation, and fruit development.
26. What is the primary function of the cuticle in plants?
a) Gas exchange
b) Water absorption
c) Protection against pathogens
d) Reduction of transpiration
Answer: d) Reduction of transpiration
Explanation: The cuticle is a waxy layer covering the epidermis of leaves and stems in plants. Its primary function is to reduce water loss by transpiration and protect against pathogens and environmental stress.
27. Which of the following is a method of weed control that involves the use of physical barriers to prevent weed growth?
A) Mulching
b) Crop rotation
c) Herbicide application
d) Irrigation
Answer: a) Mulching
Explanation: Mulching involves covering the soil around plants with materials such as straw, leaves, or plastic to suppress weed growth, conserve soil moisture, and moderate soil temperature.
28. What is the primary function of the phloem in plants?
a) Water and mineral absorption
b) Support and structure
c) Transport of sugars and nutrients
d) Photosynthesis
Answer: c) Transport of sugars and nutrients
Explanation: The phloem is a vascular tissue responsible for transporting sugars, nutrients, and other organic molecules produced during photosynthesis from the leaves to other parts of the plant for growth and storage.
29. Which of the following farming practices involves the deliberate cultivation of a single crop species on a large scale?
A) Polyculture
b) Monoculture
c) Agroforestry
d) Aquaculture
Answer: b) Monoculture
Explanation: Monoculture refers to the agricultural practice of growing a single crop species over a large area. It is often associated with industrial agriculture and can lead to increased susceptibility to pests and diseases.
30. Which of the following is a method of livestock management that involves moving animals to different pastures or ranges to prevent overgrazing and promote soil health?
a) Intensive grazing
b) Continuous grazing
c) Rotational grazing
d) Free-range grazing
Answer: c) Rotational grazing
Explanation: Rotational grazing involves dividing pastures into smaller paddocks and rotating livestock between them to optimize forage utilization, minimize soil erosion, and improve pasture productivity.
31. What is the primary function of the cotyledon in a seed?
a) Protection of the embryo
b) Absorption of water
c) Storage of food reserves
d) Production of roots
Answer: c) Storage of food reserves
Explanation: The cotyledon is a seed structure that stores food reserves, which are used by the germinating seedling until it can produce its own food through photosynthesis.
32. Which of the following is a method of plant propagation that involves separating a portion of a parent plant to grow a new individual?
A) Grafting
b) Budding
c) Layering
d) Division
Answer: d) Division
Explanation: Division is a method of plant propagation where a portion of the parent plant, such as a rhizome or tuber, is separated and planted to grow into a new individual.
33. Which of the following is a characteristic of loamy soil?
a) High fertility
b) Large particle size
c) Poor drainage
d) Low organic matter content
Answer: a) High fertility
Explanation: Loamy soil has a balanced combination of sand, silt, and clay particles, making it fertile and suitable for most crops. It retains moisture well while still allowing for good drainage.
34. Which of the following is an example of an annual crop?
a) Wheat
b) Coconut
c) Pineapple
d) Coffee
Answer: a) Wheat
Explanation: Wheat is an annual crop that completes its life cycle, including germination, growth, reproduction, and death, within a single growing season.
35. Which of the following is a method of water conservation in agriculture?
a) Over-irrigation
b) Mulching
c) Drainage
d) Flooding
Answer: b) Mulching
Explanation: Mulching helps conserve water in agriculture by reducing evaporation from the soil surface, suppressing weed growth, and maintaining soil moisture levels.
36. What is the primary function of the cambium in plants?
a) Photosynthesis
b) Transpiration
c) Growth in thickness
d) Absorption of water
Answer: c) Growth in thickness
Explanation: The cambium is a layer of actively dividing cells in the vascular tissue of plants responsible for secondary growth, which increases the diameter of stems and roots.
Government Frequently Repeated Past Questions
Studying for the Joint Admissions and Matriculation Board (JAMB) examination can be a tasking one, especially when it comes to subjects like Government. However, one effective strategy for success is to familiarize yourself with frequently repeated past questions.
In this article, we’ll explore some of these commonly encountered questions in JAMB Government and provide tips on how to approach them.
Understanding the Format
Before diving into the questions, it’s essential to understand the format of the JAMB Government examination. Typically, the Government section consists of multiple-choice questions, where candidates are required to select the correct answer from a list of options. These questions often cover various topics, including political systems, governance, and constitutional development.
Here are the Frequently Repeated Past Questions
Which of the following is a feature of a federal system of government?
A) Centralization of power
B) Unitary government structure
C) Division of powers between central and regional governments
D) Autocratic rule
The doctrine of separation of powers is associated with which political philosopher?
A) Karl Marx
B) John Locke
C) Montesquieu
D) Jean-Jacques Rousseau
Who is considered the father of modern political science?
A) Plato
B) Aristotle
C) Machiavelli
D) Thomas Hobbes
The Magna Carta was signed in which country?
A) France
B) England
C) Spain
D) Italy
Which of the following is NOT a function of political parties?
A) Recruitment of leaders
B) Education of citizens
C) Maintenance of law and order
D) Formulation of public policy
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a unitary system of government?
A) Centralization of power
B) Division of powers between central and regional governments
C) Strong central government control
D) Absence of regional autonomy
Answer: B) Division of powers between central and regional governments
Explanation: In a unitary system of government, power is concentrated at the central level, with little to no autonomy granted to regional or local governments. Therefore, there is no division of powers between central and regional governments.
Who coined the term “political socialization”?
A) Harold Lasswell
B) Max Weber
C) Emile Durkheim
D) Karl Marx
Answer: A) Harold Lasswell
Explanation: Harold Lasswell, an American political scientist, is credited with coining the term “political socialization.” This concept refers to the process by which individuals acquire political attitudes, beliefs, and values.
The concept of sovereignty refers to:
A) Absolute power held by the executive branch
B) Authority of a state to govern itself
C) Supreme power vested in a monarch
D) Total control of the judiciary over the legislative branch
Answer: B) Authority of a state to govern itself
Explanation: Sovereignty is the supreme authority of a state to govern itself without interference from external sources. It encompasses the ability to make and enforce laws within its territorial boundaries.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the legislature?
A) Making laws
B) Execution of laws
C) Oversight of the executive
D) Representation of the people
Answer: B) Execution of laws
Explanation: The execution of laws is the responsibility of the executive branch of government, not the legislature. The primary functions of the legislature include lawmaking, oversight of the executive, and representation of the people.
Who is considered the founder of modern democracy?
A) Pericles
B) Alexander the Great
C) Julius Caesar
D) Cleopatra
Answer: A) Pericles
Explanation: Pericles, an ancient Athenian statesman, is often credited with laying the foundations of modern democracy through his reforms in Athens during the 5th century BCE. He expanded the participation of citizens in government and promoted the idea of political equality.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a parliamentary system of government?
A) Separation of powers between the executive and legislative branches
B) Direct election of the head of government by the people
C) Fusion of powers between the executive and legislative branches
D) Appointment of the head of government by the judiciary
Answer: C) Fusion of powers between the executive and legislative branches
Explanation: In a parliamentary system, the executive branch (headed by the Prime Minister) is drawn from the legislative branch (Parliament). This results in a fusion of powers, as the executive derives its authority from the legislature.
Who wrote the book “The Leviathan,” which explored the concept of the social contract?
A) Thomas Hobbes
B) John Locke
C) Jean-Jacques Rousseau
D) Montesquieu
Answer: A) Thomas Hobbes
Explanation: Thomas Hobbes, an English philosopher, wrote “The Leviathan” in which he discussed the concept of the social contract theory. He argued that individuals enter into a social contract with the government to escape the state of nature and ensure social order.
Which of the following is an example of a totalitarian regime?
A) Constitutional monarchy
B) Oligarchy
C) Fascism
D) Direct democracy
Answer: C) Fascism
Explanation: Totalitarian regimes are characterized by centralized control over all aspects of public and private life, often led by a single party or leader. Fascism is an example of such a regime, marked by authoritarianism, nationalism, and dictatorial rule.
Which branch of government is responsible for interpreting the law in a constitutional democracy?
A) Executive
B) Legislative
C) Judicial
D) Administrative
Answer: C) Judicial
Explanation: In a constitutional democracy, the judiciary is tasked with interpreting the law and ensuring its compliance with the constitution. This includes resolving disputes, interpreting statutes, and upholding individual rights.
What is the primary purpose of a constitution in a democratic society?
A) To establish a dictatorship
B) To limit the powers of government
C) To promote inequality among citizens
D) To centralize power in the executive branch
Answer: B) To limit the powers of government
Explanation: A constitution serves to establish the framework for government, define the distribution of powers, and protect the rights of citizens. One of its primary purposes in a democratic society is to limit the powers of government to prevent abuse and ensure accountability.
Which of the following best describes a confederal system of government?
A) Strong central government with limited regional autonomy
B) Division of powers between central and regional governments
C) Weak central authority with autonomous regional governments
D) Fusion of powers between the executive and legislative branches
Answer: C) Weak central authority with autonomous regional governments
Explanation: In a confederal system, power is decentralized, with autonomous regional governments retaining significant authority. The central government’s powers are limited, and it primarily serves as a coordinator between the regions.
Who is often referred to as the “Father of Classical Liberalism”?
A) Karl Marx
B) John Locke
C) Friedrich Hayek
D) Jean-Jacques Rousseau
Answer: B) John Locke
Explanation: John Locke, an English philosopher, is often referred to as the “Father of Classical Liberalism” for his contributions to political theory, including ideas on natural rights, government by consent, and the social contract.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a presidential system of government?
A) Fusion of powers between the executive and legislative branches
B) Direct election of the head of government by the people
C) Appointment of the head of government by the legislature
D) Indirect election of the head of government by an electoral college
Answer: B) Direct election of the head of government by the people
Explanation: In a presidential system, the head of government (president) is typically elected directly by the citizens. This distinguishes it from parliamentary systems where the head of government is often chosen from the legislature.
Who authored the influential work “The Spirit of Laws,” which explored the principles of political organization and separation of powers?
A) Montesquieu
B) Thomas Hobbes
C) Machiavelli
D) Aristotle
Answer: A) Montesquieu
Explanation: Montesquieu, a French political philosopher, authored “The Spirit of Laws,” in which he advocated for the separation of powers within government to prevent tyranny and ensure liberty.
Which of the following best describes a presidential veto?
A) The power of the legislature to reject executive appointments
B) The power of the executive to reject legislation passed by the legislature
C) The power of the judiciary to declare laws unconstitutional
D) The power of the people to initiate constitutional amendments
Answer: B) The power of the executive to reject legislation passed by the legislature
Explanation: A presidential veto refers to the authority of the executive branch to reject legislation passed by the legislature. This serves as a check on the legislative branch’s power and requires a supermajority vote to override.
Which political philosopher is associated with the concept of the “general will”?
A) John Locke
B) Jean-Jacques Rousseau
C) Niccolò Machiavelli
D) Karl Marx
Answer: B) Jean-Jacques Rousseau
Explanation: Jean-Jacques Rousseau, a Swiss-French philosopher, introduced the concept of the “general will” in his work “The Social Contract.” He argued that the general will represents the common interest of the citizens and should guide the actions of the state.
In a democracy, sovereignty is ultimately vested in:
A) The ruling party
B) The executive branch
C) The judiciary
D) The people
Answer: D) The people
Explanation: In a democracy, sovereignty resides with the people, who have the ultimate authority to govern themselves. This principle is often expressed through mechanisms such as elections and popular participation in decision-making.
Which of the following is NOT a principle of democracy?
A) Rule of law
B) Majority rule with minority rights
C) Authoritarianism
D) Political equality
Answer: C) Authoritarianism
Explanation: Authoritarianism is a form of government characterized by centralized control and limited political freedoms. It is antithetical to the principles of democracy, which emphasize individual rights, political participation, and accountability.
Who is credited with the theory of the “invisible hand” in economics?
A) Adam Smith
B) Karl Marx
C) John Maynard Keynes
D) Milton Friedman
Answer: A) Adam Smith
Explanation: Adam Smith, a Scottish economist and philosopher, introduced the concept of the “invisible hand” in his seminal work “The Wealth of Nations.” He argued that individuals pursuing their self-interest in a competitive market indirectly promote the social good.
Which of the following best describes a bicameral legislature?
A) A legislature with a single chamber
B) A legislature with two chambers
C) A legislature with multiple chambers
D) A legislature with unelected representatives
Answer: B) A legislature with two chambers
Explanation: A bicameral legislature consists of two separate chambers or houses, often with different functions and compositions. Examples include the United States Congress (House of Representatives and Senate) and the British Parliament (House of Commons and House of Lords).
Which of the following is NOT a feature of a communist system?
A) Classless society
B) Private ownership of the means of production
C) Centralized control of the economy
D) Redistribution of wealth
Answer: B) Private ownership of the means of production
Explanation: In a communist system, the means of production are owned and controlled by the state or the community as a whole, rather than by private individuals or corporations. Private ownership is not a feature of communism.
Who is considered the author of “The Prince,” a seminal work on political leadership and governance?
A) Machiavelli
B) Rousseau
C) Locke
D) Montesquieu
Answer: A) Machiavelli
Explanation: Niccolò Machiavelli, an Italian Renaissance political philosopher, wrote “The Prince” as a practical guide for rulers on how to acquire and maintain power. The work explores themes such as leadership, morality, and the relationship between rulers and their subjects.
Which of the following is a principle of bureaucratic organization?
A) Decentralization of authority
B) Informal communication channels
C) Hierarchy of authority
D) Flexible decision-making processes
Answer: C) Hierarchy of authority
Explanation: Bureaucratic organizations typically feature a clear hierarchy of authority, with well-defined levels of management and supervision. This structure helps ensure accountability, coordination, and efficient decision-making.
The term “separation of powers” refers to the division of government functions into which branches?
A) Executive, legislative, and judicial
B) Central, regional, and local
C) National, state, and municipal
D) Economic, social, and cultural
Answer: A) Executive, legislative, and judicial
Explanation: The principle of separation of powers involves the division of government functions and powers among distinct branches: the executive (administration), the legislative (lawmaking), and the judicial (interpretation of laws and resolution of disputes).
Which of the following political ideologies advocates for the abolition of private property and the establishment of a classless society?
A) Communism
B) Libertarianism
C) Conservatism
D) Fascism
Answer: A) Communism
Explanation: Communism is an ideology that seeks to create a classless society by abolishing private property and establishing collective ownership of the means of production. It aims to achieve social and economic equality through common ownership and control
Tips for Success
Study Past Questions: Make use of past JAMB Government questions to familiarize yourself with the exam format and the types of questions asked. By practicing with these questions, you’ll gain confidence and improve your ability to select the correct answers.
Understand Concepts: Don’t just memorize answers; strive to understand the underlying concepts and principles. This will help you tackle questions that may be presented in a slightly different format.
Review Key Topics: Focus on key topics such as types of government, political ideologies, and constitutional frameworks. Allocate your study time wisely, prioritizing areas where you feel less confident.
Practice Time Management: During the exam, manage your time effectively. Don’t spend too much time on any single question. If you’re unsure of an answer, mark it and move on, returning to it later if time permits.
Stay Calm and Confident: Finally, approach the exam with a calm and confident mindset. Trust in your preparation and remain focused throughout the duration of the test.
In conclusion, mastering JAMB Government requires diligent study and preparation. By familiarizing yourself with frequently repeated questions, understanding key concepts, and practicing effective exam techniques, you’ll be well-equipped to tackle the challenges posed by the examination. Good luck!
Do forget to like, comment and share to friends, we are dedicated to make sure you come out successful in any exams


Question:
Who wrote the play “Death and the King’s Horseman”?
A) Wole Soyinka
B) Chinua Achebe
C) Ngugi wa Thiong’o
D) Athol Fugard
Answer:
A) Wole Soyinka
Explanation:
“Death and the King’s Horseman” is a play written by Nigerian playwright Wole Soyinka. It was first published in 1975 and explores themes of cultural clash, tradition, and colonialism in Nigeria during the British colonial period. Soyinka, who won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1986, is renowned for his contributions to African literature and theater.
Question:
Who is the author of the novel “Things Fall Apart”?
A) Chinua Achebe
B) Wole Soyinka
C) Ngugi wa Thiong’o
D) Buchi Emecheta
Answer:
A) Chinua Achebe
Explanation:
“Things Fall Apart” is a novel written by Nigerian author Chinua Achebe, first published in 1958. It is one of the most widely read and studied works of African literature, exploring the impact of colonialism on Igbo society in Nigeria.
Question:
Which of the following is NOT a work by William Shakespeare?
A) Macbeth
B) The Importance of Being Earnest
C) Hamlet
D) Othello
Answer:
B) The Importance of Being Earnest
Explanation:
“The Importance of Being Earnest” is a play by Oscar Wilde, not William Shakespeare. Shakespeare is famous for his numerous plays, including “Macbeth,” “Hamlet,” and “Othello.”
Question:
Who wrote the poem “The Waste Land”?
A) T.S. Eliot
B) Robert Frost
C) Sylvia Plath
D) Langston Hughes
Answer:
A) T.S. Eliot
Explanation:
“The Waste Land” is a modernist poem written by T.S. Eliot and first published in 1922. It is widely regarded as one of the most important poems of the 20th century.
Question:
What literary device is often used to create a humorous effect by contrasting seemingly incongruous things?
A) Irony
B) Metaphor
C) Simile
D) Oxymoron
Answer:
D) Oxymoron
Explanation:
An oxymoron is a literary device that combines contradictory or incongruous terms for effect, often creating a humorous or striking expression.
Question:
In “To Kill a Mockingbird,” who is the lawyer defending Tom Robinson?
A) Atticus Finch
B) Bob Ewell
C) Boo Radley
D) Jem Finch
Answer:
A) Atticus Finch
Explanation:
Atticus Finch is the lawyer defending Tom Robinson, a black man falsely accused of raping a white woman, in Harper Lee’s novel “To Kill a Mockingbird.”
Question:
Who is the author of the novel “1984”?
A) George Orwell
B) Aldous Huxley
C) Ray Bradbury
D) Margaret Atwood
Answer:
A) George Orwell
Explanation:
“1984” is a dystopian novel written by George Orwell, published in 1949. It explores themes of totalitarianism, surveillance, and government oppression.
Question:
What is the setting of the novel “Pride and Prejudice”?
A) Regency England
B) Victorian England
C) Colonial America
D) Medieval Europe
Answer:
A) Regency England
Explanation:
“Pride and Prejudice” is set in Regency England, a period in the early 19th century known for its distinctive cultural and social characteristics.
Question:
Who wrote the poem “The Raven”?
A) Edgar Allan Poe
B) Emily Dickinson
C) Walt Whitman
D) Robert Frost
Answer:
A) Edgar Allan Poe
Explanation:
“The Raven” is a narrative poem by Edgar Allan Poe, first published in 1845. It is known for its haunting rhythm and themes of grief, loss, and the supernatural.
Question:
What is the genre of the play “Othello”?
A) Tragedy
B) Comedy
C) Romance
D) History
Answer:
A) Tragedy
Explanation:
“Othello” is a tragedy written by William Shakespeare, first performed in 1604. It tells the story of the Moorish general Othello, whose life is ruined by jealousy and deception.
Question:
Who is the protagonist of the novel “The Catcher in the Rye”?
A) Holden Caulfield
B) Jay Gatsby
C) Scout Finch
D) Elizabeth Bennet
Answer:
A) Holden Caulfield
Explanation:
Holden Caulfield is the protagonist and narrator of J.D. Salinger’s novel “The Catcher in the Rye,” which follows his experiences in New York City after being expelled from prep school.
Question:
Which of the following is a play by Henrik Ibsen?
A) A Doll’s House
B) Dr. Faustus
C) Waiting for Godot
D) Death of a Salesman
Answer:
A) A Doll’s House
Explanation:
“A Doll’s House” is a play written by Norwegian playwright Henrik Ibsen, first performed in 1879. It is considered one of the earliest feminist dramas.
Question:
Who wrote the novel “Brave New World”?
A) Aldous Huxley
B) George Orwell
C) Ray Bradbury
D) Margaret Atwood
Answer:
A) Aldous Huxley
Explanation:
“Brave New World” is a dystopian novel written by Aldous Huxley and published in 1932. It explores a future society where people are controlled through technology and conditioning.
Question:
Which of the following poets is associated with the Romantic movement?
A) William Wordsworth
B) T.S. Eliot
C) Ezra Pound
D) Langston Hughes
Answer:
A) William Wordsworth
Explanation:
William Wordsworth is a prominent figure of the Romantic movement in English literature, known for his celebration of nature and exploration of the human experience.
Question:
In “The Great Gatsby,” who is the narrator?
A) Nick Carraway
B) Jay Gatsby
C) Daisy Buchanan
D) Tom Buchanan
Answer:
A) Nick Carraway
Explanation:
Nick Carraway is the narrator of F. Scott Fitzgerald’s novel “The Great Gatsby,” providing insight into the events and characters surrounding the enigmatic Jay Gatsby.
Question:
What is the central theme of the novel “The Lord of the Flies”?
A) Civilization vs. Savagery
B) Love and Redemption
C) Social Class Struggles
D) The Pursuit of Wealth
Answer:
A) Civilization vs. Savagery
Explanation:
“The Lord of the Flies” by William Golding explores the conflict between civilization and savagery as a group of boys stranded on an uninhabited island
Question:
Which literary device involves the repetition of consonant sounds at the beginning of words?
A) Alliteration
B) Simile
C) Metaphor
D) Personification
Answer:
A) Alliteration
Explanation:
Alliteration is the repetition of consonant sounds at the beginning of words in close proximity. It is often used for emphasis or to create a musical effect in writing.
Question:
Which literary device involves giving human characteristics to non-human entities?
A) Personification
B) Hyperbole
C) Onomatopoeia
D) Symbolism
Answer:
A) Personification
Explanation:
Personification is the attribution of human characteristics to non-human things or abstract concepts. It is often used to make descriptions more vivid or to convey deeper meanings.
Question:
Which literary device involves the use of words that imitate the sound they describe?
A) Onomatopoeia
B) Metaphor
C) Simile
D) Irony
Answer:
A) Onomatopoeia
Explanation:
Onomatopoeia is the use of words that imitate the sounds they represent. Examples include “buzz,” “hiss,” and “clang.”
Question:
Which literary device involves the comparison of two unlike things using “like” or “as”?
A) Simile
B) Metaphor
C) Allusion
D) Hyperbole
Answer:
A) Simile
Explanation:
A simile is a figure of speech that compares two unlike things using the words “like” or “as.” It is often used to create vivid imagery or to make a comparison more explicit.
Question:
Which literary device involves exaggeration for emphasis or effect?
A) Hyperbole
B) Oxymoron
C) Irony
D) Symbolism
Answer:
A) Hyperbole
Explanation:
Hyperbole is a figure of speech that involves exaggeration for emphasis or effect. It is often used to make a point more forcefully or to create a humorous effect.
Question:
Which literary device involves the use of words that have the opposite meaning of what is intended?
A) Irony
B) Alliteration
C) Oxymoron
D) Metaphor
Answer:
A) Irony
Explanation:
Irony is a literary device that involves using words to convey a meaning that is the opposite of what is expected or intended. It often creates a contrast between appearance and reality.
Question:
Which literary device involves the use of symbols to represent ideas or concepts?
A) Symbolism
B) Personification
C) Allegory
D) Imagery
Answer:
A) Symbolism
Explanation:
Symbolism is the use of symbols to represent ideas or concepts beyond their literal meaning. Symbols can be objects, images, or actions that carry deeper significance in a text.
Question:
Which literary device involves the repetition of vowel sounds within words?
A) Assonance
B) Consonance
C) Alliteration
D) Onomatopoeia
Answer:
A) Assonance
Explanation:
Assonance is the repetition of vowel sounds within words in close proximity. It is often used to create musicality or to evoke certain emotions in writing.
Question:
Which literary device involves the use of contradictory terms side by side for emphasis or effect?
A) Oxymoron
B) Irony
C) Metaphor
D) Allegory
Answer:
A) Oxymoron
Explanation:
An oxymoron is a figure of speech that combines contradictory terms for emphasis or effect. Examples include “jumbo shrimp” and “bittersweet.”
Question:
Which literary device involves the use of one thing to represent something else?
A) Metaphor
B) Allegory
C) Simile
D) Personification
Answer:
B) Allegory
Explanation:
An allegory is a narrative in which characters, events, and settings symbolize abstract ideas or moral qualities. It is often used to convey complex themes or moral lessons.
Question:
Who wrote the poem “The Road Not Taken”?
A) Robert Frost
B) Langston Hughes
C) Emily Dickinson
D) Walt Whitman
Answer:
A) Robert Frost
Explanation:
“The Road Not Taken” is a poem written by American poet Robert Frost, first published in 1916. It is one of Frost’s most famous works, exploring themes of choice, regret, and the passage of time.
Question:
Which poem begins with the line “Once upon a midnight dreary”?
A) “The Raven”
B) “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening”
C) “The Waste Land”
D) “The Love Song of J. Alfred Prufrock”
Answer:
A) “The Raven”
Explanation:
“The Raven” is a narrative poem written by Edgar Allan Poe, first published in 1845. It begins with the iconic line “Once upon a midnight dreary,” setting the tone for the haunting and melancholic narrative that follows.
Question:
Who wrote the poem “Ozymandias”?
A) Percy Bysshe Shelley
B) John Keats
C) William Wordsworth
D) Samuel Taylor Coleridge
Answer:
A) Percy Bysshe Shelley
Explanation:
“Ozymandias” is a sonnet written by English poet Percy Bysshe Shelley, first published in 1818. It explores themes of power, pride, and the transience of human achievements.
Question:
Which poem famously begins with the line “How do I love thee? Let me count the ways”?
A) “Sonnet 18”
B) “The Waste Land”
C) “Sonnet 43”
D) “Ode to a Nightingale”
Answer:
C) “Sonnet 43”
Explanation:
“Sonnet 43,” also known as “How do I love thee? Let me count the ways,” is a sonnet written by Elizabeth Barrett Browning, first published in 1850. It is one of Browning’s most famous poems, expressing the depth and breadth of her love.
Question:
Which poet wrote the poem “Do not go gentle into that good night”?
A) Dylan Thomas
B) W.B. Yeats
C) T.S. Eliot
D) William Wordsworth
Answer:
A) Dylan Thomas
Explanation:
“Do not go gentle into that good night” is a villanelle written by Welsh poet Dylan Thomas, first published in 1951. It is one of Thomas’s most famous works, exploring themes of death, resistance, and the will to live.
Question:
Who wrote the poem “The Love Song of J. Alfred Prufrock”?
A) T.S. Eliot
B) William Wordsworth
C) Walt Whitman
D) Langston Hughes
Answer:
A) T.S. Eliot
Explanation:
“The Love Song of J. Alfred Prufrock” is a poem written by American-British poet T.S. Eliot, first published in 1915. It is considered one of the defining works of modernist poetry, exploring themes of alienation, insecurity, and the passage of time.
Question:
Which poem describes a visit to a “yellow wood” and the decision to take “the one less traveled by”?
A) “The Road Not Taken”
B) “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening”
C) “Ode to a Nightingale”
D) “Daffodils”
Answer:
A) “The Road Not Taken”
Explanation:
“The Road Not Taken” by Robert Frost describes a moment of decision in a “yellow wood,” where the speaker chooses “the one less traveled by” as a metaphor for taking a unique or unconventional path in life.
Question:
Who wrote the poem “If”?
A) Rudyard Kipling
B) William Wordsworth
C) Robert Frost
D) Langston Hughes
Answer:
A) Rudyard Kipling
Explanation:
“If” is a poem written by English writer Rudyard Kipling, first published in 1910. It offers advice and guidance on how to live a virtuous and fulfilling life, addressing themes of perseverance, integrity, and self-discipline.
Question:
Which poet wrote the poem “Daffodils”?
A) William Wordsworth
B) John Keats
C) Percy Bysshe Shelley
D) Samuel Taylor Coleridge
Answer:
A) William Wordsworth
Explanation:
“Daffodils,” also known as “I Wandered Lonely as a Cloud,” is a poem written by English poet William Wordsworth, first published in 1807. It celebrates the beauty of nature and the power of memory to uplift the spirit.
Question:
Which poet wrote the poem “The Tyger”?
A) William Blake
B) William Wordsworth
C) John Keats
D) Percy Bysshe Shelley
Answer:
A) William Blake
Explanation:
“The Tyger” is a poem written by English poet William Blake, first published in 1794 as part of his collection “Songs of Experience.” It explores the nature of good and evil, creation, and the mysteries of existence through the image of a powerful and enigmatic tiger.
Question:
Who wrote the novel “To Kill a Mockingbird”?
A) Harper Lee
B) F. Scott Fitzgerald
C) Ernest Hemingway
D) Mark Twain
Answer:
A) Harper Lee
Explanation:
“To Kill a Mockingbird” is a novel written by American author Harper Lee, first published in 1960. It explores themes of racial injustice, moral growth, and the loss of innocence in the American South during the 1930s.
Question:
Which novel features the character Holden Caulfield?
A) “The Catcher in the Rye”
B) “1984”
C) “Brave New World”
D) “The Great Gatsby”
Answer:
A) “The Catcher in the Rye”
Explanation:
Holden Caulfield is the protagonist and narrator of J.D. Salinger’s novel “The Catcher in the Rye,” which follows his experiences in New York City after being expelled from prep school.
Question:
Who wrote the play “Romeo and Juliet”?
A) William Shakespeare
B) Christopher Marlowe
C) Ben Jonson
D) John Milton
Answer:
A) William Shakespeare
Explanation:
“Romeo and Juliet” is a tragedy written by English playwright William Shakespeare, believed to have been written between 1591 and 1595. It tells the story of two young lovers whose deaths ultimately reconcile their feuding families.
Question:
Which novel features the character Jay Gatsby?
A) “The Great Gatsby”
B) “The Grapes of Wrath”
C) “Moby-Dick”
D) “Pride and Prejudice”
Answer:
A) “The Great Gatsby”
Explanation:
Jay Gatsby is the title character and protagonist of F. Scott Fitzgerald’s novel “The Great Gatsby,” which explores themes of wealth, love, and the American Dream during the Roaring Twenties.
Question:
Who wrote the novel “Pride and Prejudice”?
A) Jane Austen
B) Charles Dickens
C) Emily Brontë
D) Charlotte Brontë
Answer:
A) Jane Austen
Explanation:
“Pride and Prejudice” is a novel written by English author Jane Austen, first published in 1813. It is one of Austen’s most famous works, known for its witty social commentary and memorable characters.
Question:
Which novel features the character Atticus Finch?
A) “To Kill a Mockingbird”
B) “The Great Gatsby”
C) “1984”
D) “Brave New World”
Answer:
A) “To Kill a Mockingbird”
Explanation:
Atticus Finch is a central character in Harper Lee’s novel “To Kill a Mockingbird.” He is a lawyer who defends an African American man falsely accused of raping a white woman in 1930s Alabama.
Question:
Who wrote the novel “1984”?
A) George Orwell
B) Aldous Huxley
C) Ray Bradbury
D) Margaret Atwood
Answer:
A) George Orwell
Explanation:
“1984” is a dystopian novel written by George Orwell, published in 1949. It explores themes of totalitarianism, surveillance, and government oppression in a future society dominated by a totalitarian regime.
Question:
Which novel features the character Scout Finch?
A) “To Kill a Mockingbird”
B) “The Catcher in the Rye”
C) “Lord of the Flies”
D) “The Great Gatsby”
Answer:
A) “To Kill a Mockingbird”
Explanation:
Scout Finch is the narrator and protagonist of Harper Lee’s novel “To Kill a Mockingbird.” The story is told from her perspective as she grows up in the racially charged atmosphere of 1930s Alabama.
Question:
Who wrote the novel “Jane Eyre”?
A) Charlotte Brontë
B) Emily Brontë
C) Anne Brontë
D) Jane Austen
Answer:
A) Charlotte Brontë
Explanation:
“Jane Eyre” is a novel written by English author Charlotte Brontë, first published in 1847. It is a bildungsroman, or coming-of-age story, following the experiences of its titular character as she navigates love, independence, and social class.
Question:
Who wrote the novel “Moby-Dick”?
A) Herman Melville
B) Nathaniel Hawthorne
C) Walt Whitman
D) Emily Dickinson
Answer:
A) Herman Melville
Explanation:
“Moby-Dick” is a novel written by American author Herman Melville, first published in 1851. It tells the story of Captain Ahab’s obsessive quest for revenge against the white whale Moby Dick, exploring themes of fate, obsession, and the human condition.